Functional Equations with Finitely Many Ratios
Problem 1. Determine all functions
𝑓 ( 𝑥 + 𝑦 ) + 𝑓 ( 𝑥 − 𝑦 ) = 2 𝑓 ( 𝑥 ) + 2 𝑓 ( 𝑦 ) 𝑓 ( 𝑥 𝑦 ) = 𝑓 ( 𝑥 ) 𝑓 ( 𝑦 ) 𝑓 ( 1 ) = 1 such that∀ 𝑥 ∈ ℝ , ∃ 𝑛 ∈ { 1 , 2 , … , 1 0 } .𝑓 ( 𝑥 ) = 𝑛 𝑥 2
Solution. It’s not hard to see that the final answer is
Let
Then we will show that
Next, suppose
Last, since
View Typst source
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#import "../shared.typ": *
#show: tylenotes.with(
title: "Functional Equations with Finitely Many Ratios",
date: "2026-10-30",
tags: ("functional equation", "finite sets", "lean"),
summary: "A technique for solving a functional equation with finitely many ratios",
)
#problem[
Determine all functions $f: RR->RR$ such that
+ $f(x+y) + f(x-y) = 2f(x) + 2f(y)$
+ $f(x y) = f(x) f(y)$
+ $f(1) = 1$
+ $forall x in RR, exists n in {1,2,dots,10}$ such that $f(x) = n x^2$.
]
#solution[
It's not hard to see that the final answer is $f(x) = x^2$.
Next we prove it. \
Let $x = 0$, $y = 0$, then $2f(0) = 4f(0)$. Hence, $f(0) = 0$.
Let $x = 0$, we obtain $f(y) + f(-y) = 2f(y)$.
Thus, $f(y) = f(-y)$. Therefore $f(-1) = 1$. \
Then we will show that $f(n) = n^2 thick forall n in ZZ$.
By $f(y) = f(-y)$,
it suffices to show that $f(n) = n^2 thick forall n in NN$.
Since $f(0) = 0$ and $f(1)=1^2$ are already known,
by induction, we obtain
$f(n) = f(n-1 + 1) = -f(n-2) + 2f(n-1) + 2f(1)
= -(n-2)^2 + 2(n-1)^2 + 2 = n^2$. \
Next, suppose $f(x) = phi(x)x^2$.
We stipulate that $phi(0) = 1$, since $f(0) = 0$.
Then we obtain $phi: RR->{1,2,dots,10}$.
We study the case in which $x eq.not 0$,
since we already know that $f(0) = 0$.
By property 1, we obtain
$phi(x+y)(x+y)^2 + phi(x-y)(x-y)^2 = 2phi(x)x^2 + 2phi(y)y^2$.
Simplify this expression to obtain
$(phi(x+y)+phi(x-y)-2phi(x))x^2+(phi(x+y)+phi(x-y)-2phi(y))y^2+
2(phi(x+y)-phi(x-y))x y = 0$.
Then we will show that
$exists y in ZZ$ such that $phi(x)=phi(y)$.
Let $a = phi(x+y)+phi(x-y)-2phi(x)$,
$b = phi(x+y)+phi(x-y)-2phi(y)$,
$c = 2phi(x+y)-2phi(x-y)$,
then $a x^2 + b y^2 + c x y = 0$.
Since $phi$ is a bounded integer-valued function,
we know that there are only finitely
many possibilities of $(a,b,c)$.
Thus, this equation gives at most finitely many solutions
of $y$ satisfying this condition for a given $x$ when
$a$, $b$, $c$ is not all zero.
But $y in ZZ$ can take infinitely many values.
Thus, $exists y$ such that $a=b=c=0$ for a given $x$.
In this case,
we obtain $phi(x+y)+phi(x-y)=2phi(x)=2phi(y)$,
which implies $phi(x)=phi(y)$.
Last, since $forall x in RR, exists y in ZZ, phi(x)=phi(y)$
and $phi(x)=1 thick forall x in ZZ$,
we obtain $phi(x)=1 thick forall x in RR$.
Thus, $f(x)=x^2$.
]
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